Is a rightful share still a rightful share once the person who is owed it already
has money of her own? That question sat in the middle of my wife's family for three
weeks straight after her father sold a plot of land near Shamshabad and the numbers finally came
out. Under the inheritance calculation her share came to about eleven lakh rupees. Her brother looked at
that number and told her, in front of everyone, that he could manage two lakh and needed
the rest himself, since she already had plenty as it was. Her father got angry at his
own son for saying it, told him the land was earned with his own money and his
daughter would get exactly what she was owed, and the son argued back at his own father
in a room full of relatives who had come expecting tea and small talk, not a courtroom,
some of them still holding their cups when the shouting started. His wife tried to referee it
and only made things worse, pointing out that a rightful share does not shrink just because
the person receiving it already has some money of her own. I told him this would go
to court if it had to. He said, fine, take five lakh, like he was doing us
a favor. It was never charity to begin with, and I told him that plainly, in front
of the same relatives who had watched the first fight. He eventually agreed to something closer to
the full amount after another month of silence between the two families, a court notice, and one
phone call from an uncle who both of them still listen to. He has not stepped into
our house since, and he does not call his sister anymore either. I keep circling back to
the same question. Does having money of your own somehow cancel out what is legally and religiously
yours, or is that just what people say when they want to keep more than their share?